Would this action not have put the punishment of Job on his wife? This seems rather odd to me. Yes, Job would have had to watch her in servitude, but she would have suffered as well. I am confused with this train of thought.
KJV - 10 Then let my wife grind unto another, and let others bow down upon her.
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If you read the whole passage, you will see that Job is proclaiming his innocence in not deserving the punishment he was receiving. In Job 3:9, he says, "IF (and it's not true) my heart has been enticed by a woman or IF (and it's not true) I have lurked at my neighbor's door..." The point is, Job HADN'T done any of those things, which is why he said, "let my wife grind for another..." because he knew he did not deserve what he was going through but if he was guilty of the previous infractions, it would have been just to allow his wife to suffer.
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