Why is the word "Easter" in the KJV Bible instead of "Passover"?

Acts 12:4 
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Acts 12:4

ESV - 4 And when he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out to the people.

Clarify Share Report Asked April 05 2017 548269 r1 12 18 013 Angel karing Supporter

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Data Selva Moses Supporter Director - Singapore InfoComm Technology, servant of God
Greek: pascha (G3957) word is referred to as the Passover, as translated in 26 other places (Mt. 26:2-19 Mk. 14:1-16 Lk. 2:41; 22:1-15 Jn. 2:13,23; 6:4; 11:55; 12:1; 13:1; 18:28,39; 19:14; 2Cor. 5:7; Heb. 11:28).

This is an unfortunate and absurd translation in KJV, as Easter was a pagan festival observed long before Christ. It is not a Christian name, but is derived from Ishtar, one of the Babylonian titles of an idol goddess, the Queen of Heaven. The Saxon goddess Eastre is the same as the Astarte, the Syrian Venus, called Ashtoreth in the Old Testament. It was the worship of this woman by Israel that was such an abomination to God (1Sam. 7:3; 1Ki. 11:5,33; 2Ki. 23:13; Jer. 7:18; 44:18). 

Round cakes, imprinted with the sign of the cross were made at this festival, the sign being, in the Babylonian mysteries, a sign of life. Easter eggs which play a great part in this day's celebration were common in all heathen nations. The fable of the egg declares that "an egg of wondrous size fell from heaven into the river Euphrates; the fish rolled it to the bank, where doves settled upon it and hatched it; and out came Astarte, or Ishtar, the goddess of Easter." Easter, Christmas, Lady Day, Lent, and other Babylonian festivals were all borrowed from this religion and were all observed centuries before Christ. None of them have any relationship to Christ or Christianity.

April 09 2017 8 responses Vote Up Share Report

Mini Tim Maas Retired Quality Assurance Specialist with the U.S. Army
My understanding is that the translation of this verse is the only case in which the Greek word in question (rendered as "pascha" in the English alphabet) was translated as "Easter" by the King James Version (KJV), rather than as "Passover". (Also, nearly every other English translation of this verse that I could find (with the lone exception of the American King James Version) translates the word as "Passover".) The question would therefore seem to relate to translation of the original Greek text, rather than to the wording of the Greek text itself.

I also understand that it was earlier "unauthorized" English translations of this verse (that is, translations that were done without the official sanction or approval of a ruler or church body, prior to the "authorized" KJV), by individuals such as William Tyndale and Myles Coverdale, that first gave an anachronistic translation of "pascha" in this particular verse as "Easter". This was untrue to the original text, since "Easter" was a much later Saxon term that was applied to the celebration of Christ's resurrection, and was not observed by that name in New Testament times.

(Perhaps Tyndale and Coverdale were trying to distinguish the observance of Christ's resurrection by the New Testament church from the Jewish observance of Passover, but the context of the verse in question (referring to Herod's intent) relates to Jewish practices, rather than to Christian actions or observances.)

It was apparently the translations by Tyndale and Coverdale (which, despite their unauthorized nature, influenced the translators of the King James Version) that resulted in this lone instance of "pascha" being translated as "Easter" in this verse.

April 05 2017 0 responses Vote Up Share Report

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